60 Question Part 107 Practice Test

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This 60 question practice exam will help you prepare for the Part 107 exam. Keep track of the questions that you got wrong and study them more in depth.

The FAA has authorized hundreds of airman knowledge testing center locations that offer a full range of airman knowledge tests. For information on authorized airman knowledge testing centers and to register for the knowledge test, contact one of the providers listed on the Airman Knowledge Testing Center List.


PART 107 Made Easy

  • 161 Question and Answer Study Guide
  • 105 pages of illustrated content
  • Covers all parts of the Part 107 test
  • $97 of value for free

Knowledge Test Registration

When you contact an Airman Knowledge Testing Center to register for a test, be prepared to select a test date, choose a testing center, and make financial arrangements for test payment. You may register for the test(s) several weeks in advance, and you may cancel in accordance with the testing center’s cancellation policy. The fee for the test is $150.00.

UAS Topics for Knowledge Testing

The following table lists the general areas of required aeronautical knowledge, understanding, or proficiency required to obtain the small Unmanned Aircraft System (sUAS) rating.

Area of OperationTaskPercentage of Items on Test
IA. General
B. Operating Rules
C. Remote Pilot Certification with an sUAS rating
D. Waivers
30 – 40%
IIA. Airspace Classification
B. Airspace Operational Requirements
30 – 40%
VB. Airport Operations
C. Emergency Procedures
D. Aeronautical Decision-Making
F. Maintenance and Inspection Procedures
20 – 30%

Area I. Regulations (Initial 15-25%. Recurrent 30-40%)


1. Your UA is involved in an accident that causes one of your crewmembers to lose consciousness. Is an accident report required, and if so, when?
  • A. No accidents need to be reported.
  • B. Within 10 days of the accident.
  • C. When requested by the FAA.
The correct answer is B: [107.9 Accident reporting. “No later than 10 calendar days after an operation that meets the criteria of either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.” Do not confuse this with 107.21 that says, “(b) Each remote pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (a) of this section must, upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.”]


2. Under what condition would a small UA not have to be registered before it is operated in the United States?
  • A. All small UAS must be registered regardless of the weight of the aircraft before, during, or after the flight.
  • B. When the aircraft has a takeoff weight that is more than .55 pounds, but less than 55 pounds, not including fuel and necessary attachments. [This is weight range for Part 48. Remember that Part 47 is for the 55lbs and heavier drones!]
  • C. When the aircraft weighs less than .55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on-board or attached to the aircraft.
The correct answer is C: See Part 107 91.203(a).


3. According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small UA within 30 minutes after official sunset?
  • A. Use of anti-collision lights.
  • B. Must be operated in a rural area.
  • C. Use of a transponder.
The correct answer is A: Daylight operation. [§107.29(b)] No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system during periods of civil twilight unless the small unmanned aircraft has lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles. For all pilots, civil twilight begins 30 minutes before official sunrise and ends 30 minutes after official sunset (except for Alaska), a period of time that begins at official sunset and ends 30 minutes after official sunset].


4. What is the minimum age to be eligible for the remote pilot certificate?
  • A. 15
  • B. 16
  • C. 17
The correct answer is B: [§107.57, 107.59] An applicant for a remote pilot certificate must be 16 years of age.


5. The Administrator or a representative may request to see:
  • A. A record of recent flights, such as a logbook.
  • B. The remote pilot in command’s remote pilot certificate.
  • C. Any photo identification.
The correct answer is B: [107.7] Inspection, testing, and demonstration of compliance. (a) A remote pilot in command, owner, or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must, upon request, make available to the Administrator: (1) The remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. This regulation also says “Any other document, record, or report required to be kept under the regulations of this chapter.” The log book and photo ID are not required.


6. Part 107 specifically prohibits a person from flying a SUAS directly:
  • A. Over an active runway.
  • B. Over a person who is not participating in the operation of the sUAV and who is not under safe cover.
  • C. Over a structure more than 400 feet high.
The correct answer is B: Part 107 specifically prohibits flight over persons not directly participating in the sUA operations who are NOT protected by a covered structure or in a vehicle. Flight over an active runway is allowed at an airport NOT under controlled airspace.


7. Provided no property is carried for compensation or hire, an operator may fly an sUA from a moving vehicle if the sUA is:
  • A. Operated over a sparsely-populated area.
  • B. Equipped with visible anti-collision lights.
  • C. Equipped with a transponder.
The correct answer is A: “…no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft from a moving land or water-borne vehicle unless the sUA over a sparsely populated area and not transporting property for compensation or hire.” [FAR §107.25]


8. By definition, Evening Civil Twilight ends:
  • A. 15 minutes after official sunset.
  • B. 30 minutes after official sunset.
  • C. One hour after official sunset.
Answer B. [§107.29, (c), (2)] A period of time that begins at official sunset and ends 30 minutes after official sunset.


9. To maintain visual line of sight with a sUA, the remote pilot in command may use the aid of:
  • A. Binoculars
  • B. Corrective lenses
  • C. A first-person viewing (FPV) device
The correct answer is B: [§107.31] The Remote PIC must use unaided vision except for the use of corrective lenses.


10. Regarding visual line of sight (VLOS), the remote pilot in command:
  • A. Must maintain VLOS of the sUA at all times.
  • B. Loss of sight for brief moments is permitted for operational necessity or safety.
  • C. The sUA may be flown out of visual line of sight if the aircraft is operating autonomously.
The correct answer is B: The sUA may be flown out of visual sight for brief moment as an operational necessity or for safety.


11. When may a person who does not hold a remote pilot certificate operate a sUA for hire?
  • A. Only when the flight operations have been approved by a certified sUA pilot.
  • B. When under the direct supervision of a Remote PIC who is immediately available to take control if necessary.
  • C. When directly supervised by a visual observer.
The correct answer is B: [§107.17] A person who does not possess a remote pilot certificate may operate a UA for hire when under the direct supervision of a remote pilot in command and the remote pilot has the ability to immediately take direct control of the flight of the UA.


12. Regarding operating a sUA from a manned, flying aircraft:
  • A. Is permitted if the sUA is to be flown over sparsely populated areas.
  • B. Is permitted when visual observers are positioned along the intended flight path.
  • C. It is not permitted (unless a Certificate of Waver (CoW) is obtained from the FAA.
The correct answer is C: [§107.25] Operation from a moving land or water vehicle is permitted over sparsely populated areas. Operation of an sUA from a moving aircraft is prohibited unless a CoW is obtained prior to the flight.


13. In order to properly yield the right of way to an aircraft approaching the area where your UA is being flown, you must:
  • A. Give way to the right of the approaching aircraft.
  • B. Give way to the aircraft and not pass over, under, or in front of the aircraft.
  • C. Remain at least 500 feet below or 2000 feet away from the aircraft.
The correct answer is B: [§107.39] “Yielding the right of way” means that the sUA must give way to the aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear.


14. Who is directly responsible for, and the final authority for, the operation of an sUA?
  • A. The person manipulating the controls.
  • B. The remote PIC.
  • C. The visual observer.
The correct answer is B: [§107.19] This is one of the primary tenets of the role of a pilot in command of any aircraft—the PIC has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft.


15. A small UA must be operated in a manner that:
  • A. Does not exceed 250 feet AGL.
  • B. Requires at least one visual observer.
  • C. Does not endanger the life or property of another.
The correct answer is C: [§107.31(4)] A visual observer is not required unless you are doing something that may make it difficult for the PIC to clearly see the position UA. 250 feet AGL is not the maximum altitude to operate a UA. C should require no explanation.


16. The refusal of a remote PIC to submit to a blood alcohol test when requested by a law enforcement officer:
  • A. Is grounds for suspension of revocation of his/her remote pilot certificate.
  • B. Can be delayed for a period up to 8 hours after the request.
  • C. Has no consequences to the remote pilot certificate.
The correct answer is A: [§107.59] Refusal to submit to a blood alcohol test when requested by a law enforcement officer, or to refuse to provide or authorize the release test results is grounds for suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate.


17. After receiving a remote pilot certificate under Part 107 with a small UA rating, how often are you required to complete recurrent training to maintain your PIC UA privileges?
  • A. Ever 6 months
  • B. Every 12 months
  • C. Every 24 months
The correct answer is C: [§107.65] A person may not operate a UA unless that person has passed a recurrent test within the previous 24 months.


18. What would be required for a pilot to operate a UA after the end of evening civil twilight and before the beginning of morning civil twilight?
  • A. Obtain a Certificate of Waiver from the FAA
  • B. Have both operational anti-collision lights and a transponder on the aircraft
  • C. Operation after evening civil twilight is prohibited.
The correct answer is A: Ordinarily, the answer for this question would logically be C [§107.29(b), since flight between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight is prohibited. However, the regulations say that a Certificate of Waiver is required for any operations that are otherwise prohibited [§107.205], and it further states [in §107.205(b)] that “daylight Operation” is one of the regulations subject to waiver.


19. The maximum altitude for operation of a sUA over open land (no buildings or other structures within 400 feet horizontally away from the UA) is:
  • A. 400 ft MSL
  • B. 400 ft AGL
  • C. 500 ft AGL
The correct answer is B: [§107.51] 400 feet above ground level. MSL is above sea level. That would not be very practical for anyone operating more than 400 feet above sea level. 500 ft AGL seems like a logical answer, but it is not correct.


20. A person who holds a remote pilot certificate who moves and has a permanent change of address must, in order to continue to exercise the privileges of his or her certificate, notify the FAA of the new address within:
  • A. 30 days
  • B. 60 days
  • C. 90 days
The correct answer is A: [§107.77 (b)] A person who has had a permanent change of address may not “after 30 days, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified the FAA of the change of address…”


Area II. Airspace Regulations (Recurrent 30-40%)


Figure 1. An Aeronautical Chart

21. (See Figure 1) What does the line of latitude indicated by 48° (upper left of the figure) measure?
  • A. The degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian.
  • B. The degrees north of the equator.
  • C. The degree east or west of the Prime Meridian that passes through Greenwich, England.
The correct answer is B: A may look correct at first, but lines of latitude are parallel to, and measured in degrees north or south of the equator. Latitude north of the Equator, including all the United States is “north” latitude.


22. (See Figure 1) What airport is located at approximately 47° (degrees) 39’ (minutes) N latitude and 101° 27’ West longitude?
  • A. Fischer Airport
  • B. Garrison Airport
  • C. Semchenko Airport
The correct answer is B: Remember that lines of longitude run north and south (up and down) the sectional chart, increasing as you move west (to the left) on the chart. Latitude lines run east and west (across) the chart, increasing from south (down) to north (up) on the chart. In Figure 1, the 101° line of longitude is the tick-marked vertical line on the right side of Figure 1. It is identified near where it crosses the 48° line of latitude near the top of figure. Latitude is measured up from the equator, thus, the 47° line of latitude is near the bottom (south) of the figure. Each tick more on the lines represents one minute (’) of latitude and longitude. Count up 37’ from the 47°-degree line of latitude and draw a line parallel to the line of latitude between the 101° and 102° lines of longitude. Similarly, counting from the right, begin at the 101° line of longitude and count 27’ (tick marks) to the left. Draw a line through this point parallel to the lines of latitude between 47° and 48°. Where the lines cross indicates that point on the chart identified by the coordinates 47° 39’ N, 101° 27’ W on the chart or Garrison Airport.



Figure 2. Jamestown Airport

23. (See Figure 2) You have received authorization to operate your sUAS near the towers just west of the city of Jamestown, near Jamestown Regional Airport (JMS), which radio communication frequency could be used to monitor manned aircraft flying into and out of the airport?
  • A. 123.0
  • B. 118.425
  • C. 121.0
The correct answer is A: This is an uncontrolled airport (i.e., no operational control tower). Aircraft are expected to announce their position and intentions using the 123.0 in the airport data. 118.425 is an automated weather reporting frequency. Do NOT use 121.0—this is the frequency set aside for pilots to use for inflight emergencies.



Figure 3. Obstacle Height

24. (See Figure 3) An sUA is being launched approximately 4 miles north of Cochran Airport. What is the height of the nearest obstacle?
  • A. 1169 feet MSL
  • B. 1169 feet AGL
  • C. 1568 feet AGL
The correct answer is B: The height of obstacles is shown in both feet above sea level (MSL) and above ground level (AGL). The larger of the two numbers in bold blue is the MSL height. The number in parentheses is the AGL height.



Figure 4. Controlled Airspace

25. Refer to Figure 4. You have been hired to use your sUA to examine the towers two miles north east of Knoxville Downtown Island airport. Prior to the flight you must:
  • A. Check the weather on AWOS.
  • B. Receive Authorization for ATC.
  • C. Obtain a waiver from the FAA.
The correct answer is B: This Class E controlled airspace that begins at ground level as indicated by the dashed magenta circle around the airport.


26. The most comprehensive information for any given airport can be found in:
  • A. Chart Supplements (formerly the Airport Facility Directory)
  • B. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS)
  • C. Terminal Area Charts (TAC)
The correct answer is A: The Chart Supplements provide comprehensive information on each airport, including runway lengths and directions, field elevation, all radio frequencies associated with the airport, phone numbers including the airport manager, hours of operation, local hazards, services available, etc.


Controlled Airspace

Figure 5. Controlled Airspace

27. Refer to Figure 5. The magenta shaded circle around Louisville Airport indicates:
  • A. Class G airspace beginning at 500 feet above ground level.
  • B. The airport has an operational control tower.
  • C. Class C airspace beginning at 500 feet above the airport.
The correct answer is C: The shaded magenta circle indicates controlled airspace beginning at 500 feet above the airport (AGL).


28. Refer to Figure 5. Louisville Airport is:
  • A. An uncontrolled airport that provides services to pilots.
  • B. A controlled airport with no services.
  • C. An uncontrolled airport with a paved runway.
The correct answer is C: The fact that the airport symbol is magenta indicates that it is not a controlled airport. There are no tick marks on the edges of the circle, so no services are available. The runway is shown inside the airport circle, indicated there is a paved runway.


29. Refer to Figure 5. To obtain current local weather information at Louisville Airport you:
  • A. Can listen tune your radio to and listen to 119.35
  • B. Can listen on frequency 122.9
  • C. Must contact the local Flight Service Station.
The correct answer is A: This is the automated weather observation frequency. You could call the local Flight Service Station (FSS), but with the AWOS station, it should not be necessary.



Figure 6. Controlled Airspace

30. Refer to Figure 6. What do the blue dashed lines around the airports in Figure 6, identified by the blue arrows indicate?
  • A. Class D controlled airspace beginning at the surface.
  • B. Class D controlled airspace beginning at 500 feet AGL.
  • C. A terminal control area (TCA).
The correct answer is A: This is Class D controlled airspace beginning at the surface and extending upward to any overlying controlled airspace. UA flights in this area will require prior approval by Air Traffic Control.


31. Refer to Figure 6. Which airports in Figure 6 are uncontrolled airports?
  • A. The airport that is not shown as a circle.
  • B. None. They are all controlled airports.
  • C. They are all uncontrolled airports.
The correct answer is B: They are all colored blue; therefore they are all controlled airports having either full-time and part-time operational control towers.


Special Use Airspace

Figure 7A. Special Use Airspace

32. Refer to Figure 7A. The area surrounded by the hash-marked magenta border is a:
  • A. A restricted area.
  • B. A warning area.
  • C. Military Operations Area
The correct answer is C: Technically the area is not restricted, but the box serves as a warning that there may intense military aircraft activity in the Military Operations Area (the “MOA” should give it away).


33. In Figure 7A, the area surrounded by the hash-marked blue border is a Restricted Area. Where would you find information about the altitude and hours of operation for R-3002?
  • A. On the information panel that is part of the appropriate Sectional Chart.
  • B. In the Chart Supplement.
  • C. Contacting the local Flight Service Station.
The correct answer is A: This is the best, quickest answer (See Figure 7B). The restricted area information on the information panel on the Sectional chart. Should you contact the local FSS, they should be able to advise you of any NOTAMS relative to activity in the areas—or you can obtain applicable NOTAMs directly. Note the information also includes MSL altitudes of the limits of each section of the restricted airspace.


Special Use Airspace

Figure 7B. Special Use Airspace

33. Weather: Prior to a scheduled sUA flight the PIC should obtain a:
  • A. Standard weather briefing
  • B. An Outlook Briefing
  • C. an Abbreviated Briefing
The correct answer is B: The correct terminology is an “Outlook Briefing,” which includes both current weather, short term (24 hours) forecasts and the outlook beyond 24 hours.


34. What effect does a low density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?
  • A. The propeller efficiency will be increased.
  • B. The propeller efficiency will be decreased.
  • C. Density altitude has no effect on propeller performance.
The correct answer is A: A high density altitude means that the air density is reduced—the term “high” refers to altitude as in a “high altitude” density, which leads to reduced propeller efficiency. Therefore a “low” density altitude indicates denser, lower altitude air, which increases propeller efficiency.


35. What are the cloud clearance requirements for sUAS operations?
  • A. 400 ft below clouds, 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
  • B. 500 ft below clouds, 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
  • C. 1000 ft below clouds, 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
The correct answer is B: 500 ft below clouds and 2000 feet horizontally is the requirement.


36. You have received an outlook briefing from the flight from 1800wxbrief.com. The briefing indicates you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?
  • A. clear skies and light winds.
  • B. Clouds, fog, haze, or smoke, resulting in diminished visibility
  • C. Turbulence, reduced visibility, dense clouds, heavy rain.
The correct answer is B: Low level temperature inversions generally provide stable, smooth air, but also trap smoke, haze, and visible moisture reducing visibilities.
(Ref: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-H-8083-25), p. 10-13)


37. What is the minimum visibility for sUAS operations?
  • A. 1 statute mile
  • B. 3 statute miles
  • C. 5 statute miles
The correct answer is B: 3 statute miles


38. What are the characteristics of unstable air?
  • A. Poor visibility and smooth in the area.
  • B. Haze and smoke
  • C. Turbulence and showery precipitation
Answer C. Turbulence and showery precipitation. Thunderstorms are the result of unstable air.


39. How can a remote pilot “check NOTAMS” to determine the activity in a restricted area?
  • A. Use the B4UFLY mobile application.
  • B. Contact the FAA district office.
  • C. By obtaining a briefing via an online source such as 1800WXBrief.com
The correct answer is C: The 1800WXBrief.com provides the most comprehensive briefing. The district office is not for weather.


Chart Supplement

Figure 8. Chart Supplement

40. Refer to Figure 8: Winchester Municipal is located in the Eastern Time zone. The time is 1200Z. What is the local time in February (Central Standard Time)?
  • A. 0600 CST
  • B. 0700 CST
  • C. 1200 noon CST
The correct answer is A: In the very first line of the posting is the notation UTC-6(-5DT). This is the adjustment from “Zulu” (Z), Greenwich Mean Time, or Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) (they all refer to the same time standard). “UTC-6” means subtract 6 hours from UTC to determine the local time (subtract 5 hours during Daylight Savings Time).


41. Refer to Figure 8: Winchester Municipal is attended beginning at what time during winter months?
  • A. 6:00 am
  • B. 8:00 am
  • C. 1200 Noon
The correct answer is B: The airport office opens at 8:00 am. See Airport remarks, Attended 1400-000Z.


42. You are preparing to operate a UV in the residential area just northwest of the runway. Monitoring the airport Unicom frequency, you hear an aircraft reporting a “left downwind for Winchester runway 36.” Where should you be looking for that aircraft?
  • A. Overhead. You position is under the left downwind for Runway 36.
  • B. Toward the east side of the airport, across the runway.
  • C. To the northwest to see the aircraft enter the pattern.
The correct answer is A: The left downwind for runway 36 is approximately right over the residential area.


43. To monitor aircraft radio traffic, your radio should be set to what frequency?
  • A. 122.8
  • B. 128.15
  • C. 121.725
The correct answer is A: The CTAF/Unicom frequency is 122.8 which is common at many—but not all–uncontrolled airports.



Figure 9. METAR

44. Figure 9 is the METeorological Aerodrome Report METAR for Chattanooga, TN. The observation was made on the 14th day of the month at 1653Z (highlighted in yellow). Reading this, you know that at 1653Z the wind was blowing from:
  • A. The northwest at 7 kt.
  • B. The southeast at 21 kt.
  • C. The west at 7 kt.
The correct answer is A: “33007KT” indicates the wind direction, 330 degrees, and speed, 7 knots (kt.). Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing, therefore the wind is coming from 330 degrees or from the northwest and blowing toward the south east.


45. What does the METAR tell you about cloud cover?
  • A. Cloud cover is not reported in METARs.
  • B. There is a broken layer of clouds at 2100 feet and an overcast later at 3300 feet.
  • C. The cloud ceiling at the airport is 3300 feet.
The correct answer is B: The notation “BKN021 OVC033” indicates the cloud layers at 2100 and 3300 feet. By definition, a ceiling is lowest of broken or overcast cloud layer, which in this case is 2100 feet.


Terminal Area Forecast

Figure 9. The Terminal Area Forecast (TAF)

46. In the decoded text for the TAF, what time of day is that forecast for?
  • A. 1400 Chattanooga time.
  • B. 1400 UTC
  • C. 2:00 pm local time.
The correct answer is B: Pretty obvious. The forecast time is 1400 UTC, which is 0900 Central time.


47. According to the forecast, at what time could you expect there to be a cloud ceiling over the airport, using Central Standard Time?
  • A. 0200 CST
  • B. 2000 CST
  • C. 0800 CST
The correct answer is B: UCT is 0200 (actually the 15th, the next day in England). Subtracting 6 hours from 0200 takes you back to 2000 (8:00 pm) CST. 8:00 am is 0800.


Area IV. Loading and Performance Regulations (Recurrent 20-30%)

48. To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading guidelines specified in the:
  • A. Remote Pilot’s Drone Flight Manual
  • B. Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook
  • C. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
The correct answer is A: For certified person-carrying aircraft this would be the best answer, and it also is for an sUAS, however many capable UAs available on the market to not include weight and balance in the literature provided with the aircraft because they are not designed to carry any additional payload or equipment.


49. You plan to add an additional camera to your UV. During installation and mounting, you should mount it in such a manner that:
  • A. It is visible to the visual observer or other crew members.
  • B. It does not adversely affect the UV center of gravity.
  • C. It is easily accessible.
The correct answer is B: If not properly balanced, a fixed-wing UAV could easily stall, or fail to climb. A rotorcraft may be difficult to control or position properly.


50. What precaution should you take with lithium batteries to prevent possible fires or damage?
  • A. Allow the battery to charge until the temperature reaches 100°.
  • B. Store batteries in a freezer to allow proper charging.
  • C. Follow the manufacturer’s recommendations for safe battery charging and handling.
The correct answer is C: This answer is almost always the correct answer, whatever the question regarding UA maintenance and batteries. Extremes of heat and cold are not good for Li-based batteries.


51. Safety is an important consideration during any UA operation. To prevent the final link in a potential accident sequence, a remote pilot should consider which methodology.
  • A. Crew Resource Management
  • B. Risk Management
  • C. The Safety Management System
The correct answer is B: This is the part of decision making that requires awareness and good judgement to recognize and reduce risks during a flight. The objective is to identify and eliminate potential risks. While both safety and CRM enhance safety and mission performance, Risk Management is the only one with “Risk” in its title. (Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, 16-4)


52. Crew Resource Management (CRM) can effectively enhance the efficiency and safety of any activity that involves two or more individuals. To be the most effective, CRM must be integrated into:
  • A. The flight portion of the flight, since not all crew members may be involved in the planning.
  • B. All aspects of the communication between team members.
  • C. All phases of the operation.
The correct answer is C: All individuals involved, from preflight planning to flying the mission, are part of the team. Each person is a resource in some way or another, and it is the responsibility of the UA PIC to ensure that all members are aware of their contributions and performance duties throughout the full cycle.


53. Prior to a flight requiring a visual observer, the PIC and the VO go over the mission so that each know what to expect, and what to be alert for. This kind of planning is an example of:
  • A. Crew Resource Management (CRM)
  • B. Safety Management
  • C. Team communications only.
The correct answer is A: The objective of CRM is to ensure each member of the team understands his or her role, what is expected, how it contributes to the overall mission, etc. The proper application of CRM should make flight operations more efficient, safer, and more profitable.


54. Which technique should the PIC and other members of the team use to scan for traffic or other hazards during the UA’s flight?
  • A. Systematically focus on specific areas of the sky for short intervals.
  • B. Rely on peripheral vision to detect of moving objects in the sky.
  • C. Continuously scan (sweep) the sky from side to side or up and down.
The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision is good for big things like trucks and cars as you cross the street (and even then, it may not work!)—not for identifying gray airplanes against a gray sky. The eye needs a brief moment to detect and focus on any distant object. The scan must look ahead and behind the UA since manned aircraft can overtake the UA.


55. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol in the human body?
  • A. Judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
  • B. A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
  • C. Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover.
The correct answer is A: “A” always has to be the first and only answer. Consuming water does not accelerate the metabolism of alcohol, and alcohol does not sharpen vision.


56. How often is the PIC expected to inspect the condition and airworthiness of the UA.
  • A. Monthly
  • B. Annually
  • C. Before each flight.
The correct answer is C: This should be obvious. Pilots always preflight their aircraft before a flight—the same should be true of UA pilots. And it is not a bad idea to do a post-flight inspection just to make sure nothing has to be fixed before the next flight.


Angle of Bank vs. Load Factor Chart

Figure 10. Angle of Bank vs. Load Factor Chart

57. Refer to Figure 10. If your unmanned aircraft weighs 45 pounds just prior to takeoff—this includes any fuel and added equipment—the total weight of the aircraft. What would be weight or g-force on the aircraft in a 45°-bank turn.
  • A. Almost 52 pounds
  • B. More than 63.5 pounds
  • C. Approximately 90 pounds.
The correct answer is B: Actually, the calculation is 63.63 lb. of force [45 lb. x 1.414 load factor = 63.63 lb.] of effective force on the airframe and components. Why does this matter. Aircraft exposed to excessive g-forces tend to wear out faster, structural elements weaken, and inflight failures occur. This is especially true of fixed-wing UVs—and can induce a stall when not anticipated—but rotorcraft are subjected to the same forces.


Figure 11

Figure 11

58. Refer to Figure 11. Note the blue arrow near Piney Creek airport. It is pointing to the number VR58. VR58 is a:
  • A. Victor Airway
  • B. Low -Level Military Training Route
  • C. VOR Radial
The correct answer is B: The grey line indicates a low-level military training route. These VFR routes may be flown at or below altitudes of 1500 feet at speeds in excess of 250 kt.


Area V. Operations and Performance

59. You are a remote pilot for a co-op energy service provider, you are to use your UA to inspect power lines in a remote area that is a 15-hour drive from your home. After the drive, fatigue impacts your ability to complete your assignment on time. Fatigue can be recognized:
  • A. As something that can be overcome by an experienced pilot.
  • B. As being in an impaired state.
  • C. Easily, even by inexperienced pilots.
The correct answer is B: Fatigue is an impaired state, and a 15-hour drive is very likely to cause fatigue. The plan would be to drive the day before the planned flight, stay overnight, and fly the mission, rested and alert.


60. A UAV pilot is showing off his flying skills performing potentially hazardous maneuvers to several friends. This is an example of:
  • A. Invulnerability
  • B. Machismo
  • C. Impulsivity
The correct answer is B: Machismo it is.